History of the "quantum of action" (1900-1927) / by Socratus /

=====.

a)

In 1900 Planck united together two formulas ( Rayleigh–Jeansfor

for long and Wien's for short wavelengths) and then divided them.

He was himself very surprised when the result was found correct.

And after that came . . . .

: " . . . some weeks of the hardest work of my life . . ."

The result was – quantum of action (as energy multiply time: h=Et)

The coefficient (h) was neither in the Rayleigh–Jeansfor nor in the

Wien's formulas. Planck took unit (h) as in some books are written:

"intuitively, instinctively, phenomenologically"

b)

In 1905 Einstein introduced unit (h) in different way.

Einstein wrote it as: h=kb

(Boltzmann coefficient multiply Wien's displacement constant)

And in 1906 Einstein wrote that Planck's and his results are equal.

But Einstein's formula explains quantum nature more clearly.

For practical uses both Planck and Einstein multiplied

"quantum of action" by frequency : E=hf.

c)

In 1913 Bohr introduced "quant of action" in the hydrogen-atom.

d)

In 1916 Sommerfeld wrote that “quantum of action” took part in

the “fine structure ” ( and as result we have complete full formula

of electron’s structure: e^2=ah*c)

e)

In 1923 De Broglie wrote that "quant of action" can be "pilot-wave".

f)

In 1924 Goudsmit and Uhlenbeck wrote that "quant of action"

can work in another way as: h/2pi (h-bar)

g)

In 1924 Pauli discovered that "the quantum of action" must obey

"the exclusion principle".

h)

In 1925 Heisenberg went a step further.

He discovered "the uncertainty principle" (HUP): Et>h*, px>h*.

i)

In the same 1925 year Schrodinger explained that

de Broglie's "pilot-wave" can work as "psi-wave function".

j)

In 1926 Schrodinger found relation between his "psi-wave

function" and the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.

k)

In 1926 Born showed that could be probability of finding

the "quant of action" in local place of the "psi-wave function".

l)

In1927 Dirac "put into place the last of quantum theory's

building blocks". He "playing with beautiful equations"

explained that the "quantum of action" must have one

negative anti-brother (-E=Mc^2) in "an unobserved infinite sea".

==============…

Result.

The QM interpretation doesn't fit the logical presentation.

Feynman wrote:

" The theory of quantum electrodynamics describes Nature

as absurd from the point of view of common sense.

And it agrees fully with experiment.

So I hope you accept Nature as She is — absurd."

/ Book: QED : The Strange Theory of Light and Matter /

My conclusion.

Nature is not an absurd structure.

It is our "scientific" thought of Nature can be absurd,

it is our "philosophy of science" can be abstract.

How is possible to escape philosophical absurd?

My solution.

The history of the "quantum of action" (1900-1927) shows that

"quantum of action" can be a quantum of light, and

"quantum of action" can be an electron, and

"quantum of action" has connection with an antiparticle . . . . .

In the other words,

quantum of light, electron and antiparticle can be one and the same

real particle of different actions in different conditions. This is possible

because "quantum of action" obeys “ The law of conservation and

transformation energy/mass”. "Quantum of action" has many formulas

and they can be tied together only through physical process of

"transformation" but what "transformation" means according to one

single "quantum of action" nobody explains.

The Existence begins on the quantum level and "quantum of action" is

primary particle of existence. Not from "big bang", not from "Higgs boson",

not from "string particles in 11-D", not from "meson, muon, tau . . . .

and 1000 their brothers" but only from Planck's / Einstein's

"quantum of action" creation of Nature was started.

==..

Best wishes.

Israel Sadovnik Socratus

===…

## History of the "quantum of action" (1900-1927) / by Socratus /

### Re: History of the "quantum of action" (1900-1927) / by Socratus /

In 2023, piggy found that wave – particle duality is not always established.

For details please see Analysis of the Speed of Probability Wave (the first chapter of piggy’s new article Research on the Root of Quantum Mechanics).

I don’t know how to display the full context here because I am not able to use the software to show some mathematical calculation. What I can do is to show its abstract.

The beginning of the context is:

According to Duc de Broglie’s original idea, the frequency of probability wave γ = E / h, the wavelength of probability wave λ = h / p.

The speed of probability wave of a free particle could be calculated as below:

If v is the moving speed of the particle, then, the speed of the corresponding probability wave:

u = γλ = (E / h)( h / p) = E / p =…

The conclusion of the context is:

When v → 0, Lim u = 0,

When v → c, Lim u = c,

When 0 ＜ v ＜ c, v ＞ u

There are two hard problems as below:

1. What does the inconformity between “v” and “u” in case of 0 ＜ v ＜ c mean exactly in physics? It represents the wave state separating from the particle state? How lame it all sound. It’s too abstract and not understandable. It just means the concept of wavicle (wave – particle duality) in QM can’t establish in this situation. Why?

Seems there is a flaw here in QM.

2. And what does the conformity between “v” and “u” in case of “v → c, Lim u = c” mean exactly in physics? It should mean the concept of wavicle established in this situation. Why?

Perhaps some topics nowadays considered as “way off” could be inspiring. Piggy has given up the conception of probability wave and initiated the new conception of “electric wave”. QM should be the science to research the wave characteristics of electric interaction, or say, wave function should be to describe “electric wave”.For details please see piggy’s new article Research on the Root of Quantum Mechanics.

https://able2know.org/topic/580961-1#post-7332532

The paragraph below should be inserted into the article “Research on the Root of Quantum Mechanics” (published in a2k galaxy in 2023) as the third chapter.

The Problem of Multiplication of Conjugate Wave Functions

The multiplication of conjugate wave functions ΨΨ* is a prevailing operation almost throughout the context of QM.

There is a question here;

Why such an operation is needed?

Seems it’s merely for the purpose of obtaining a mathematical result, the designed “probability density”.

Think about it carefully as below:

If wave function Ψ（r, t）= N exp[(i / ħ) (p•r – Et)] is to describe the movement state of a particle travelling rightward, then, its conjugate wave function Ψ*（r, t）= N exp[(i / ħ) (p•r + Et)] is to describe the movement state of the particle travelling leftward.

What’s the exact physical meaning of multiplication of the movement state of a particle travelling rightward and the movement state of the particle travelling leftward? It seems baloney in physics.

Perhaps people should touch the elephant from an alternative angle and see whether there could be a better way to make clear the real physical meaning of such mathematical operations.

Strictly speaking, physics has to tackle such specific problem.

The paragraph below should be added into the article “Research on the Root of Quantum Mechanics” (published in a2k galaxy in 2023) as the last chapter.

Addendum:

Schrodinger wave equation vs wave characteristic of electric interaction, touchy and feely:

Schrodinger set out from free particle wave function to contemplate his wave equation. The relevant derivation can be found in any QM textbook.

During the course of exploration of nature, people might touch the leaves of the tree first, and then, the sticks, the trunk, at last the root. But for a tree, the root is the most basic. Now, we watch that event in counter way:

Schrodinger wave equation: i ħ (∂ / ∂t) Ψ(r, t) = [– (ħ² / 2μ) ▽² + v (r)] Ψ(r, t)

From its structure, we can see that the Schrodinger wave equation is a wave equation concerning electric interaction. So, its solution, the wave function naturally should reflect the wave characteristic of electric interaction. Namely, wave function is to describe “electric wave”. Even in case of (idealized) free particle, wave function should not change its natural property. Namely, the conception of probability / matter wave seems to be alien and redundant.

In case of (idealized) free particle,

Schrodinger wave equation: i ħ (∂ / ∂t) Ψ(r, t) = [– (ħ² / 2μ) ▽²] Ψ(r, t)

From its structure, we can see that the electric interaction disappeared. It’s a mathematical form only. Actually the wave characteristic in physics lost.

So, its solution, the wave function is a mathematical form only. Actually the wave characteristic in physics lost.

No contradiction with the analysis ahead from the wave function of mathematical model of unit charge.

For details please see Analysis of the Speed of Probability Wave (the first chapter of piggy’s new article Research on the Root of Quantum Mechanics).

I don’t know how to display the full context here because I am not able to use the software to show some mathematical calculation. What I can do is to show its abstract.

The beginning of the context is:

According to Duc de Broglie’s original idea, the frequency of probability wave γ = E / h, the wavelength of probability wave λ = h / p.

The speed of probability wave of a free particle could be calculated as below:

If v is the moving speed of the particle, then, the speed of the corresponding probability wave:

u = γλ = (E / h)( h / p) = E / p =…

The conclusion of the context is:

When v → 0, Lim u = 0,

When v → c, Lim u = c,

When 0 ＜ v ＜ c, v ＞ u

There are two hard problems as below:

1. What does the inconformity between “v” and “u” in case of 0 ＜ v ＜ c mean exactly in physics? It represents the wave state separating from the particle state? How lame it all sound. It’s too abstract and not understandable. It just means the concept of wavicle (wave – particle duality) in QM can’t establish in this situation. Why?

Seems there is a flaw here in QM.

2. And what does the conformity between “v” and “u” in case of “v → c, Lim u = c” mean exactly in physics? It should mean the concept of wavicle established in this situation. Why?

Perhaps some topics nowadays considered as “way off” could be inspiring. Piggy has given up the conception of probability wave and initiated the new conception of “electric wave”. QM should be the science to research the wave characteristics of electric interaction, or say, wave function should be to describe “electric wave”.For details please see piggy’s new article Research on the Root of Quantum Mechanics.

https://able2know.org/topic/580961-1#post-7332532

The paragraph below should be inserted into the article “Research on the Root of Quantum Mechanics” (published in a2k galaxy in 2023) as the third chapter.

The Problem of Multiplication of Conjugate Wave Functions

The multiplication of conjugate wave functions ΨΨ* is a prevailing operation almost throughout the context of QM.

There is a question here;

Why such an operation is needed?

Seems it’s merely for the purpose of obtaining a mathematical result, the designed “probability density”.

Think about it carefully as below:

If wave function Ψ（r, t）= N exp[(i / ħ) (p•r – Et)] is to describe the movement state of a particle travelling rightward, then, its conjugate wave function Ψ*（r, t）= N exp[(i / ħ) (p•r + Et)] is to describe the movement state of the particle travelling leftward.

What’s the exact physical meaning of multiplication of the movement state of a particle travelling rightward and the movement state of the particle travelling leftward? It seems baloney in physics.

Perhaps people should touch the elephant from an alternative angle and see whether there could be a better way to make clear the real physical meaning of such mathematical operations.

Strictly speaking, physics has to tackle such specific problem.

The paragraph below should be added into the article “Research on the Root of Quantum Mechanics” (published in a2k galaxy in 2023) as the last chapter.

Addendum:

Schrodinger wave equation vs wave characteristic of electric interaction, touchy and feely:

Schrodinger set out from free particle wave function to contemplate his wave equation. The relevant derivation can be found in any QM textbook.

During the course of exploration of nature, people might touch the leaves of the tree first, and then, the sticks, the trunk, at last the root. But for a tree, the root is the most basic. Now, we watch that event in counter way:

Schrodinger wave equation: i ħ (∂ / ∂t) Ψ(r, t) = [– (ħ² / 2μ) ▽² + v (r)] Ψ(r, t)

From its structure, we can see that the Schrodinger wave equation is a wave equation concerning electric interaction. So, its solution, the wave function naturally should reflect the wave characteristic of electric interaction. Namely, wave function is to describe “electric wave”. Even in case of (idealized) free particle, wave function should not change its natural property. Namely, the conception of probability / matter wave seems to be alien and redundant.

In case of (idealized) free particle,

Schrodinger wave equation: i ħ (∂ / ∂t) Ψ(r, t) = [– (ħ² / 2μ) ▽²] Ψ(r, t)

From its structure, we can see that the electric interaction disappeared. It’s a mathematical form only. Actually the wave characteristic in physics lost.

So, its solution, the wave function is a mathematical form only. Actually the wave characteristic in physics lost.

No contradiction with the analysis ahead from the wave function of mathematical model of unit charge.